Free PMP Practice Test: 100 Questions With Answers

This free PMP practice test has 100 original questions with answers and short explanations. They are weighted like the three domains in PMI’s 2026 exam content outline: People (33 questions), Process (41) and Business Environment (26).

Pick an answer to get instant feedback and a running score. Read every explanation, because the reasoning is what helps on exam day. When you finish, you will see a score for each domain.

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Select an answer to see instant feedback. Your score updates as you go. Study notes, key formulas, the answer key and FAQs are below the quiz.

Quick jump: People (33)Process (41)Business Environment (26)Key formulas Answer key FAQs

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People (33 Questions)

1. Two team members disagree about the technical approach, and the debate is slowing the work. The project manager has heard both views. What is the best next step?

A.Make the decision yourself and instruct both people to follow it without discussionB.Escalate the disagreement to the sponsor immediately and wait for a rulingC.Ask both people to avoid each other and work on separate tasks for nowD.Bring them together to review the facts and project goals and help them agree on a solution

Answer: D. Collaborating, or problem solving, deals with the root cause and builds commitment. Escalation is for conflicts the team cannot resolve, and forcing or avoiding usually leaves the problem in place.

2. In the Tuckman ladder, a team starts to challenge each other’s ideas and compete for influence over how the work is done. Which stage is this?

A.FormingB.NormingC.StormingD.Performing

Answer: C. Storming is when disagreements surface as members test roles and approaches. Forming is the polite start, norming is when agreements settle, and performing is when the team works smoothly.

3. A project manager removes obstacles, coaches the team and helps it make its own decisions. Which leadership style is this?

A.Autocratic leadershipB.Servant leadershipC.Transactional leadershipD.Laissez-faire leadership

Answer: B. Servant leaders put the team’s needs first and focus on enabling it to succeed. This style is common in agile teams.

4. A normally active team member has been quiet and withdrawn in meetings for two weeks. What should the project manager do first?

A.Mention the behavior in the next team meetingB.Talk privately to understand any concerns and offer supportC.Reduce the person’s tasks without askingD.Wait to see whether the behavior changes on its own

Answer: B. Emotional intelligence means noticing changes and responding with a private, respectful conversation. Discussing it publicly or acting without asking can make things worse.

5. Which tool compares the current engagement level of each stakeholder with the level the project needs?

A.Stakeholder engagement assessment matrixB.Risk registerC.Responsibility assignment matrixD.Resource calendar

Answer: A. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix shows gaps between current and desired engagement, such as unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive and leading.

6. On a power and interest grid, how should a stakeholder with high power and high interest be handled?

A.Keep informedB.Keep satisfiedC.MonitorD.Manage closely

Answer: D. High power and high interest stakeholders need close, frequent engagement. High power and low interest are kept satisfied, and low power and high interest are kept informed.

7. A senior executive has a lot of influence over the project but shows little interest in the details. What approach fits best?

A.Send daily detailed status reportsB.Monitor with minimal effortC.Keep the executive satisfied with short, relevant updatesD.Ignore the executive until a problem appears

Answer: C. High power and low interest stakeholders should be kept satisfied without overloading them. Ignoring them risks losing support when decisions are needed.

8. During planning, the project manager learns that a key stakeholder doubts the project’s value. What is the best action?

A.Wait until the stakeholder raises objections openly and then respond to themB.Remove the stakeholder from the register because the doubts will not affect the projectC.Engage the stakeholder early to understand the concerns and plan how to improve supportD.Ask the sponsor to overrule the stakeholder and prevent any further doubts

Answer: C. Early engagement lets the project manager address concerns before they become obstacles. The stakeholder register and engagement plan should be updated.

9. A project team has 8 members. How many communication channels exist among them?

A.16B.28C.36D.56

Answer: B. Channels = n(n-1)/2, which is 8 x 7 / 2 = 28. The number grows quickly as the team grows.

10. A remote team must discuss a sensitive issue with many open questions. Which communication method is best?

A.Interactive communication, such as a video callB.Push communication, such as a long emailC.Pull communication, such as a shared documentD.A posted notice on the project site

Answer: A. Interactive communication allows real-time exchange and tone, which suits complex or sensitive topics. Push and pull methods are one-way.

11. Which document describes what information goes to which stakeholders, how often and by which method?

A.Project charterB.Risk management planC.Quality management planD.Communications management plan

Answer: D. The communications management plan sets out information needs, frequency, format and responsibility for sharing it.

12. An experienced team member who holds a lot of undocumented knowledge is about to leave the project. What is the best way to keep that knowledge?

A.Ask the person to send a summary email on the last dayB.Have the next person read the project planC.Accept the loss and replace the personD.Arrange shadowing or mentoring sessions and record the lessons learned

Answer: D. Tacit knowledge is best shared through personal interaction, such as mentoring, and then documented. A last-day email rarely captures it.

13. When should lessons learned be captured on a project?

A.Only at project closureB.Only after a major failureC.Throughout the projectD.Only when the sponsor requests it

Answer: C. Capturing lessons as they happen keeps them accurate and lets the team improve the current project, not only future ones.

14. At kickoff, team members describe different ideas about what the project should achieve. What should the project manager do?

A.Send each member the project charter and ask them to read it before the next meetingB.Facilitate a session to agree on a shared vision and objectives and document itC.Let each member work toward their own goals and combine the results at the endD.Ask the sponsor to rewrite the project objectives so they fit all the ideas

Answer: B. A shared vision keeps everyone aligned. Documenting the agreed vision and objectives gives the team a reference point.

15. In an agile team, who decides how to turn backlog items into working product during an iteration?

A.The development teamB.The project sponsorC.The product ownerD.The functional manager

Answer: A. Agile teams are self-organizing and decide how to do the work. The product owner decides what is most valuable to build.

16. Which role is responsible for maximizing the value of the product and for ordering the product backlog?

A.Product ownerB.Scrum masterC.Development teamD.Functional manager

Answer: A. The product owner represents stakeholders’ needs and sets backlog priorities. The scrum master coaches the team and removes impediments.

17. What is the main purpose of a daily stand-up meeting?

A.To report each member’s hours and status to senior management every dayB.To replan the entire project scope and reset the baselines for the iterationC.To review the budget and approve any changes to the project fundingD.To synchronize the team’s work and surface impediments

Answer: D. The stand-up is short and for the team. It shows progress, plans the day and raises blockers.

18. Why does a team create working agreements, or ground rules?

A.To replace the project charter with a document written by the team membersB.To assign individual work packages and set deadlines for each personC.To set shared expectations for how team members work togetherD.To control the project budget and approve purchases made by the team

Answer: C. Working agreements, ideally created by the team, set norms for behavior, meetings and communication, and reduce conflict.

19. According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following is a motivator?

A.Higher salaryB.Recognition for achievementC.Job securityD.A comfortable work environment

Answer: B. Motivators, such as achievement and recognition, increase satisfaction. Pay, security and working conditions are hygiene factors that prevent dissatisfaction but do not motivate by themselves.

20. A project team is spread across several time zones. Which approach is fair and practical for meetings?

A.Always use the sponsor’s time zone so that meetings stay consistent for everyoneB.Rotate meeting times so no one region always bears the inconvenienceC.Hold meetings only by email so that no one needs to attend at a certain timeD.Skip regular team meetings and rely on the project manager’s weekly summary

Answer: B. Rotating times shares the burden and supports team morale. Recording meetings can help those who cannot attend.

21. A customer casually asks the project manager to add a feature that is not in the scope. What is the best response?

A.Explain the change process and evaluate the request through change controlB.Add the feature right away to keep the customer happy and protect the relationshipC.Refuse to discuss any changes once the project baseline has been approvedD.Ask the team to add the feature quietly and update the plan if anyone notices

Answer: A. Managing expectations means being open and following the process. The request may be approved, but only after its impact is assessed.

22. The sponsor expects delivery a month earlier than the schedule baseline supports. What should the project manager do?

A.Agree to the earlier date and tell the team to work overtime until it is metB.Say nothing about the gap until the delivery date gets closer to avoid conflictC.Reduce testing quietly so that the earlier delivery date can be achievedD.Present the schedule analysis and discuss options and trade-offs

Answer: D. Aligning expectations uses facts. The project manager can offer options such as reduced scope or added resources and let the sponsor decide.

23. A team member’s work is late and below standard. What is the best first step?

A.Replace the team member immediately and assign the work to a more reliable personB.Share the performance concerns with the whole team so everyone knows the standardC.Give timely, specific feedback in private and agree on actionsD.Wait until the formal performance review before mentioning any concerns

Answer: C. Private, specific and timely feedback helps the person improve. Formal steps come later if the problem continues.

24. The team lacks a skill needed for upcoming work. What should the project manager do?

A.Proceed with the work and hope that the team learns the skill while doing itB.Remove the work from the project scope because the team cannot do it yetC.Plan training, mentoring or additional resources and update the resource planD.Ask the functional manager to explain why the team was not trained earlier

Answer: C. Closing a skills gap is part of planning and developing the team. The resource management plan should reflect the change.

25. A team votes on a design, and the option with the most votes wins even though it has less than half of the votes. What decision method is this?

A.MajorityB.PluralityC.UnanimityD.Autocratic decision

Answer: B. Plurality means the largest block decides. Majority requires more than 50 percent, and unanimity requires everyone to agree.

26. In a weak matrix organization, the project manager has limited authority over team members. What is the best way to get the resources the project needs?

A.Negotiate with the functional managers and build relationshipsB.Order the team members to work on the projectC.Ask the team to ignore functional workD.Wait for the sponsor to assign people

Answer: A. In matrix structures, influence and negotiation are key because functional managers control their staff.

27. A team member is explaining a problem. What shows active listening?

A.Preparing your reply while the person speaksB.Checking messages during the conversationC.Finishing the person’s sentencesD.Restating what you heard to confirm understanding

Answer: D. Active listening includes paying full attention, reflecting back what was said and asking clarifying questions.

28. A project manager on a global team notices repeated misunderstandings between two regions. What is the best action?

A.Require everyone to follow the project manager’s own communication style from now onB.Limit contact between the two regions so that fewer misunderstandings can occurC.Assume that the problem comes from language skills only and offer a language classD.Learn about each culture’s communication norms and clarify expectations with the team

Answer: D. Cultural awareness and clear agreements help prevent misunderstandings and build trust.

29. A team wants to generate ideas and then rank them by anonymous voting. Which technique is this?

A.Delphi forecastingB.Pareto analysisC.Nominal group techniqueD.Critical path method

Answer: C. Nominal group technique combines brainstorming with a ranking step. Delphi also uses anonymous input, but it uses expert rounds, not a live group.

30. A team member suggests using an AI tool to summarize meeting notes that contain confidential client information. What should the project manager do first?

A.Approve the tool at once because it saves time and meetings can be summarized quicklyB.Check the organization’s policies on data security and approved tools, and verify the output for accuracyC.Ban all new tools for the project without checking whether any of them are approvedD.Upload the notes first and review whether the information was confidential afterwards

Answer: B. New tools can help but must follow organizational policy and confidentiality rules, and a human should review the output.

31. What is the purpose of a retrospective at the end of an iteration?

A.To inspect how the team worked and agree on improvementsB.To approve the next iteration’s budgetC.To assign blame for defectsD.To update the stakeholder register

Answer: A. Retrospectives support continuous improvement by looking at process, tools and teamwork.

32. The stakeholder register is created when stakeholders are identified. Which information does it commonly hold?

A.Identification details, assessment information and classificationB.Cost estimates and activity durationsC.Test results and defect countsD.Contract terms and payment schedules

Answer: A. The register lists who the stakeholders are, what they expect or influence, and how they are classified, and it is updated as the project progresses.

33. A new team member joins in the middle of the project. What best helps the person become productive quickly?

A.A copy of the entire project archive and no further help from the teamB.A critical task on the first day with no explanation of the project’s backgroundC.A short introduction at the next quarterly review meeting with the sponsorD.A planned onboarding with project context, roles and a teammate to ask questions

Answer: D. Onboarding that explains the goals, roles, tools and working agreements shortens the learning curve and helps the person join the team.

Process (41 Questions)

34. Which document formally authorizes a project and gives the project manager the authority to apply organizational resources?

A.Project management planB.Scope statementC.Project charterD.Business case

Answer: C. The charter is issued by the sponsor or initiator. It names the project manager and gives authority. The business case explains why the project is worth doing.

35. A project has a fixed regulatory deliverable but the software features will keep changing based on user feedback. Which approach fits best?

A.A purely predictive approachB.A hybrid approachC.A purely agile approach with no planD.A waterfall approach with no change control

Answer: B. Hybrid combines predictive planning for fixed parts, such as regulatory milestones, with adaptive delivery for the changing parts.

36. Requirements are well understood, change is unlikely and the work is heavily regulated. Which development approach is most suitable?

A.AgileB.PredictiveC.Iterative with no baselineD.Kanban only

Answer: B. Predictive approaches work best when scope, time and cost can be planned in detail up front and change is limited.

37. Which is a characteristic of an iterative or agile life cycle?

A.Requirements are refined progressively with frequent feedbackB.All requirements are fixed before any work begins, and later changes are not allowedC.The customer sees the product only at the end of the project, after final testingD.Change requests are not accepted once the planning phase has been completed

Answer: A. Adaptive life cycles deliver in small increments, learn from feedback and adjust the backlog.

38. Which document contains the scope, schedule and cost baselines along with the subsidiary management plans?

A.Project charterB.Risk registerC.Business caseD.Project management plan

Answer: D. The project management plan integrates the subsidiary plans and the baselines used to measure performance. The charter only authorizes the project at a high level.

39. What is the lowest level of the work breakdown structure called?

A.Control accountB.MilestoneC.Work packageD.Activity list

Answer: C. Work packages are the lowest-level deliverables that can be estimated, scheduled and assigned.

40. Stakeholders keep asking informally for small extra features, and the team adds them without approval while the schedule slips. What is this called?

A.Gold platingB.Value engineeringC.Scope creepD.Progressive elaboration

Answer: C. Scope creep is uncontrolled growth in scope without changes to time, cost or resources. Gold plating is a team adding extras on its own.

41. Which document describes each work package in detail, including deliverables, acceptance criteria and resources?

A.Scope statementB.WBS dictionaryC.Network diagramD.Responsibility assignment matrix

Answer: B. The WBS dictionary supports the WBS with details about each component.

42. Which items make up the scope baseline?

A.Approved project scope statement, WBS and WBS dictionaryB.Schedule, budget and risk registerC.Charter, contract and issue logD.Stakeholder register and communications plan

Answer: A. The scope baseline is the approved version of these three components and can only change through change control.

43. The customer reviews a completed deliverable and formally accepts it. Which process is this?

A.Control qualityB.Close projectC.Plan scope managementD.Validate scope

Answer: D. Validate scope is the formal acceptance of completed deliverables. Control quality checks that deliverables meet quality requirements before this step.

44. In an agile project, what is used to capture and order the work that the team may deliver?

A.Work breakdown structureB.Network diagramC.Procurement statement of workD.Product backlog

Answer: D. The product backlog lists features, fixes and other work, ordered by value, and is refined as the team learns.

45. What is the critical path?

A.The path with the greatest number of activities from the start to the finishB.The path with the highest total cost of all of the network paths in the scheduleC.The longest path through the network, which determines the shortest project durationD.The path with the greatest amount of float, which can be delayed the longest

Answer: C. Activities on the critical path usually have zero total float, so a delay on the path delays the project.

46. What does total float measure?

A.How long an activity can be delayed without delaying the activity that follows itB.How long an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish dateC.The total cost of an activity expressed in hours of the scheduled resourcesD.The amount of effort an activity needs once the resources have been assigned

Answer: B. Total float is about the project end date. Free float is about the next activity.

47. Activity A takes 3 days. After A, activity B takes 5 days and activity C takes 4 days, and both can run in parallel. Activity D takes 2 days and needs both B and C to finish. What is the shortest project duration?

A.10 daysB.9 daysC.11 daysD.14 days

Answer: A. The longest path is A, B, D: 3 + 5 + 2 = 10 days. The path A, C, D is 3 + 4 + 2 = 9 days.

48. What is the difference between fast tracking and crashing?

A.Fast tracking overlaps activities that were planned in sequence, and crashing adds resources to save timeB.Fast tracking adds resources to the work, and crashing overlaps the activities in parallelC.Both techniques reduce the scope of the project to save time on the scheduleD.Both techniques cut project cost without adding any risk to the quality of work

Answer: A. Fast tracking can add rework risk, and crashing adds cost. Both are schedule compression techniques.

49. In an agile project, what does velocity show?

A.How quickly the sponsor approves changesB.How fast the budget is spentC.How many hours the team worksD.How much work the team completes in an iteration

Answer: D. Velocity, often in story points, helps the team forecast how much it can finish in future iterations.

50. A schedule is adjusted so that people are not assigned to more work than they can handle, even if the end date moves. What technique is this?

A.Resource smoothingB.Fast trackingC.Resource levelingD.Crashing

Answer: C. Leveling resolves overallocation and can extend the schedule. Smoothing adjusts activities only within their float.

51. A project has a budget at completion of $100,000 and is 40 percent complete according to the plan. What is the earned value?

A.$60,000B.$40,000C.$100,000D.$140,000

Answer: B. Earned value is the budgeted value of the work completed: 40 percent of $100,000.

52. A project has earned value of $40,000 and actual cost of $50,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.1.25B.0.8C.0.9D.1.0

Answer: B. CPI = EV / AC = 40,000 / 50,000 = 0.8. A value below 1.0 means the project is over budget.

53. A project has earned value of $40,000 and planned value of $50,000. What is the schedule performance index?

A.0.8B.1.25C.1.2D.0.5

Answer: A. SPI = EV / PV = 40,000 / 50,000 = 0.8. A value below 1.0 means the project is behind schedule.

54. A project has a budget at completion of $100,000 and a CPI of 0.8. If current cost performance is expected to continue, what is the estimate at completion?

A.$80,000B.$100,000C.$120,000D.$125,000

Answer: D. EAC = BAC / CPI = 100,000 / 0.8 = $125,000.

55. An activity has an optimistic estimate of 4 days, a most likely estimate of 6 days and a pessimistic estimate of 14 days. What is the PERT estimate?

A.6 daysB.8 daysC.7 daysD.9 days

Answer: C. PERT = (O + 4M + P) / 6 = (4 + 24 + 14) / 6 = 7 days.

56. Which statement about management reserve is correct?

A.It covers known risks and is part of the cost baselineB.It is controlled by the project manager aloneC.It covers unknown risks and is not part of the cost baselineD.It is added to every work package

Answer: C. Contingency reserves cover identified risks and sit inside the baseline. Management reserve is for unforeseen work and needs management approval to use.

57. Which of the following is a cost of poor quality, also called cost of nonconformance?

A.TrainingB.ReworkC.Quality planningD.Preventive maintenance

Answer: B. Rework and scrap are failure costs. Training, planning and prevention are costs of conformance.

58. What does a control chart show?

A.Whether a process is stable and performing within control limits over timeB.The relationship between two variables to see whether they move togetherC.The ranking of the causes of defects by frequency from highest to the lowestD.The sequence of project activities and their dependencies across the schedule

Answer: A. Control charts track data over time against upper and lower control limits to find special causes of variation.

59. In an agile project, what is the definition of done?

A.The date on which the sponsor approves the project budget for the iterationB.The last day of the iteration, when the team stops all of its workC.The point at which the team stops testing and releases the product to usersD.A shared checklist of what must be true for work to be considered complete

Answer: D. A clear definition of done keeps quality consistent and avoids misunderstandings about completion.

60. What does a RACI chart show?

A.The critical path through the schedule network and the float for each activityB.The cost of each work package and the budget that has been approved for itC.The probability and impact of each risk and the response that is plannedD.Who is responsible, accountable, consulted and informed for each task

Answer: D. A RACI is a type of responsibility assignment matrix, and each task should have a single accountable person.

61. Which tool organizes resources by category and type?

A.Work breakdown structureB.Organizational breakdown structure onlyC.Resource breakdown structureD.Risk breakdown structure

Answer: C. The resource breakdown structure lists team and physical resources by category, such as labor, equipment and materials.

62. How many people should be accountable for each task in a RACI chart?

A.TwoB.OneC.As many as neededD.None

Answer: B. Having a single accountable person avoids confusion about who has the final answer, even when several people are responsible for doing the work.

63. Which contract type places most of the cost risk on the seller?

A.Firm fixed priceB.Cost plus fixed feeC.Time and materialsD.Cost plus award fee

Answer: A. In a fixed-price contract the seller must deliver for the agreed price, so cost overruns are the seller’s risk.

64. A buyer needs help right away, and the scope cannot be defined yet. Which contract type is most suitable?

A.Time and materialsB.Firm fixed priceC.Fixed price with economic adjustmentD.Purchase order for a defined item

Answer: A. Time and materials contracts suit uncertain scope, and the buyer should add a cap or oversight to control cost.

65. A buyer wants proposals from sellers and cares about approach, skills and experience, not only price. Which document should the buyer issue?

A.Request for quotationB.Invitation for bidC.Purchase orderD.Request for proposal

Answer: D. An RFP asks sellers to propose solutions. An RFQ or IFB is mainly used when price is the main factor.

66. What does a make-or-buy analysis decide?

A.Which contract type to useB.Which supplier to chooseC.Whether to produce something in-house or buy it from outsideD.How to price a product for customers

Answer: C. Make-or-buy analysis compares cost, capacity, skills and risk before procurement starts.

67. What is a minimum viable product?

A.The cheapest version of the product that the team is able to build quicklyB.The smallest set of features that delivers value and allows the team to learn from usersC.A prototype that is built to test an idea and is never released to usersD.A product that includes all of the planned features and is fully tested

Answer: B. An MVP lets the team test assumptions early and decide what to build next based on real feedback.

68. A project finishes on time and on budget, but the expected business benefits do not appear. Why should benefits be reviewed after delivery?

A.To replace the quality audit that is performed during the execution phaseB.To confirm that the project’s outputs deliver the intended business valueC.To reopen the contract and negotiate the payment with the seller againD.To raise the project budget so that more work can be added to the scope

Answer: B. Value-based delivery looks beyond outputs to outcomes, so the organization can act if benefits fall short.

69. In MoSCoW prioritization, what does the S stand for?

A.Should haveB.ScopeC.ScheduleD.Sprint

Answer: A. MoSCoW means Must have, Should have, Could have and Won’t have this time. It helps teams order requirements.

70. Which chart shows the amount of work remaining over time in an iteration?

A.Pareto chartB.Control chartC.Scatter diagramD.Burndown chart

Answer: D. A burndown chart tracks remaining work and helps the team see whether it is on pace to finish.

71. Which technique compares actual performance with the baseline to explain differences?

A.Make-or-buy analysisB.Nominal group techniqueC.Variance analysisD.Decision tree analysis

Answer: C. Variance analysis finds the size and cause of differences in cost, schedule or scope, so corrective action can be decided.

72. The sponsor has accepted all deliverables. What should the project manager do next?

A.Start a new project right away and keep the same team and the same planB.Wait for the next regular status meeting to decide what the next step should beC.Complete closure activities, including archiving records, capturing lessons and releasing resourcesD.Close the project quickly without documentation, since the sponsor is satisfied

Answer: C. Closing includes confirming acceptance, finishing contract and financial closure, archiving documents and capturing lessons learned.

73. A project is ended early before completion. What should the project manager still do?

A.Skip closure activities because a project that was ended early is incompleteB.Perform closure activities and document why the project ended and what was learnedC.Delete the project records so that the incomplete work cannot be reviewedD.Restart the project without a charter after the next budget cycle begins

Answer: B. A terminated project still needs closure. Documenting the reasons and lessons helps the organization.

74. Why does a kanban team limit work in progress?

A.To improve flow and expose bottlenecksB.To reduce the number of team membersC.To avoid planningD.To increase the number of tasks started

Answer: A. Limiting work in progress makes bottlenecks visible and helps the team finish work before starting more.

Business Environment (26 Questions)

75. What does a project governance framework provide?

A.A list of all the identified project risks and the planned responses to themB.The detailed schedule for each work package and the resources assigned to itC.A set of test cases and acceptance criteria for the product being builtD.A structure, processes and decision-making rules for guiding and overseeing the project

Answer: D. Governance defines who decides, how decisions are made and how the project is overseen. It fits the project to the organization’s rules.

76. A steering committee reviews project progress and decides on escalated issues. What is this an example of?

A.Quality controlB.Resource levelingC.Procurement managementD.Project governance

Answer: D. Steering committees are a common governance body that provides direction and decides on matters beyond the project manager’s authority.

77. What is a typical role of a project management office (PMO)?

A.Doing all project work for the team so that project managers can focus on strategyB.Approving every purchase in the organization and managing all of its vendorsC.Supporting projects by standardizing governance, methods and sharing resourcesD.Replacing the project sponsor on projects that are important to the business

Answer: C. PMOs range from supportive to directive. They help with standards, tools, training and reporting.

78. A new regulation affects a deliverable that is already in progress. What should the project manager do first?

A.Ignore the regulation until the project ends and deal with it in the closing phaseB.Assess the impact on scope, schedule, cost and risk, and submit a change request if neededC.Change the deliverable at once and tell the stakeholders after the work is finishedD.Stop all work until the regulation has been withdrawn or officially changed

Answer: B. Compliance needs are assessed for impact and handled through the change process, so the plan and baselines stay accurate.

79. Which tool links requirements to deliverables so the team can show each requirement is met?

A.Requirements traceability matrixB.Stakeholder engagement matrixC.Probability and impact matrixD.Resource calendar

Answer: A. Traceability links requirements to their source, deliverables and tests. It also helps prove compliance.

80. What is the purpose of a quality audit?

A.To check whether project activities follow organizational and project policies and proceduresB.To measure the productivity of the team members and compare each person to othersC.To estimate project costs and approve the budget before the work is startedD.To select a contractor by reviewing proposals against the evaluation criteria

Answer: A. Audits are structured, independent reviews. They find good practices, gaps and lessons to share.

81. A stakeholder asks the project manager in a hallway to change a requirement. What should the project manager do?

A.Make the change right awayB.Reject every change on principleC.Tell the team to adjust and update the plan laterD.Ask the stakeholder to submit a formal change request

Answer: D. All changes should go through integrated change control so impact is evaluated and approved before work changes.

82. What does a change control board do?

A.Prepares the project scheduleB.Performs quality control testsC.Reviews change requests and approves or rejects themD.Identifies stakeholders

Answer: C. The change control board is a group with authority to approve or reject changes to baselines.

83. A change request has been approved. What should the project manager do next?

A.File the approved request and wait for the next phase before doing anything elseB.Update the affected plans and baselines and communicate the change to stakeholdersC.Ask the change control board to approve the same request one more timeD.Delay the implementation until the project has finished its current phase

Answer: B. Approved changes are implemented, and documents and baselines are updated. The people who are affected need to be informed.

84. What is the difference between a risk and an issue?

A.A risk is always negative, and an issue is always positiveB.A risk may happen in the future, and an issue has already happenedC.A risk has already happened, and an issue may happenD.They are the same thing

Answer: B. Risks are uncertain and can be positive or negative. An issue is a current problem that needs action.

85. A team member reports that a vendor has failed to deliver a component and the work is now blocked. What should be recorded and tracked?

A.An issue in the issue log with an owner and a due dateB.A risk in the lessons learned registerC.A change request in the risk registerD.A milestone in the scope statement

Answer: A. Because the event has already happened, it is an issue. It needs an owner, an action and a date, and may also trigger a change request.

86. In an agile team, what should the team do when it is blocked by an outside group?

A.Wait for the retrospective at the end of the iteration to bring up the blockerB.Work around the problem without telling anyone and hope that no one noticesC.Remove the blocked work from the backlog so that it no longer slows the teamD.Raise the impediment so the scrum master or project manager can work to remove it

Answer: D. Making impediments visible quickly lets the facilitator work with others to remove them.

87. Which statement best describes a risk?

A.An event that has already occurred and now needs to be resolved by the teamB.A negative event only, which can reduce the value or delay the projectC.An uncertain event that may affect objectives, either positively or negativelyD.A defect that has been found in testing and needs to be corrected

Answer: C. Risk includes both threats and opportunities.

88. Which document lists identified risks, their owners and planned responses?

A.Issue logB.Stakeholder registerC.Risk registerD.Change log

Answer: C. The risk register is updated throughout the project as risks are identified, analyzed and responded to.

89. Which tool is used in qualitative risk analysis to rank risks by probability and impact?

A.Monte Carlo simulationB.Probability and impact matrixC.Earned value analysisD.Critical path method

Answer: B. The matrix prioritizes risks for further analysis or response. Monte Carlo is a quantitative technique.

90. A team buys insurance to cover the cost of a possible equipment failure. Which risk response is this?

A.TransferB.AvoidC.MitigateD.Accept

Answer: A. Transfer shifts the impact to a third party, but the risk itself does not go away.

91. A project manager adds a more experienced developer to make a positive risk more likely to occur. Which response is this?

A.ExploitB.ShareC.AcceptD.Enhance

Answer: D. Enhance increases the probability or impact of an opportunity. Exploit makes sure it happens.

92. A new risk appears because of the response to another risk. What is it called?

A.Residual riskB.TriggerC.IssueD.Secondary risk

Answer: D. Secondary risks come from implementing a response. Residual risks remain after a response.

93. What does the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle support?

A.Resource levelingB.Procurement planningC.Continuous improvementD.Contract closure

Answer: C. PDCA is an iterative method for testing and improving a process step by step.

94. Which output of a retrospective or lessons learned session helps future work?

A.A new project charterB.Agreed improvement actionsC.A change to the contract typeD.A reduced scope baseline

Answer: B. Sessions are valuable only when the team turns insights into actions it follows through on.

95. In the ADKAR model of change, what does the first A stand for?

A.AwarenessB.ApprovalC.ActionD.Alignment

Answer: A. ADKAR stands for awareness, desire, knowledge, ability and reinforcement.

96. Employees resist a new process that the project will introduce. What is the best approach?

A.Involve affected people early and communicate the reasons and benefitsB.Announce the change on the launch day so that there is no time to objectC.Ignore the concerns because the new process has already been approvedD.Replace the people who disagree with others who accept the change quickly

Answer: A. Early involvement and clear communication build understanding and reduce resistance.

97. The sponsor wants the project to reduce its environmental impact. What should the project manager do?

A.Mention sustainability only in the closing report after the work is finishedB.Leave it to the vendor and give them no criteria or way to measure resultsC.Add it only if some budget is left over at the end of the projectD.Include sustainability criteria in requirements, procurement and risk planning

Answer: D. Sustainability goals should be planned and measured like other objectives.

98. Which tool is often used to analyze the external environment, including political, economic, social, technological, legal and environmental factors?

A.Pareto analysisB.Fishbone diagramC.PESTLE analysisD.Gantt chart

Answer: C. PESTLE looks at outside forces that can affect the project and the organization.

99. A competitor releases a similar product that may reduce the benefits in the business case. What should the project manager do?

A.Continue exactly as planned because the business case was approved earlierB.Assess the impact on the business case and benefits and discuss the options with the sponsorC.Cancel the project at once without discussing the change with anyoneD.Keep the information from the stakeholders to avoid worry about the benefits

Answer: B. Changes in the external environment can affect value. The sponsor and governance body decide whether to change direction.

100. What is the role of a risk owner?

A.To approve the project budgetB.To monitor the risk and carry out the agreed response if neededC.To accept all risks for the sponsorD.To close the risk register at the end

Answer: B. Each significant risk should have a named owner so someone watches triggers and acts on the plan.

Your Score

Section	Score

About the PMP Exam

PMI's 2026 PMP exam content outline groups the exam into three domains. The table shows each domain's weight and the kind of work it covers.

Domain	Weight	What it covers
People	33%	Developing a common vision, managing conflict, leading the team, engaging and aligning stakeholders, knowledge transfer and communication
Process	41%	Integrated planning, scope, value-based delivery, resources, procurement, finance, quality, schedule, status and closure
Business Environment	26%	Governance, compliance, change control, impediments and issues, risk, continuous improvement, organizational change and the external environment

The format below comes from the same outline. PMI can change it, so confirm the details at pmi.org before you book.

Exam feature	Details from PMI's 2026 outline
Questions	180 in total: 170 scored and 10 unscored pretest questions
Time	240 minutes, with two 10-minute breaks
Question types	Case or scenario, graphic-based, multiple choice, multiple response, and matching or point-and-click formats on computer-based tests
Approaches	About 40% of items cover predictive approaches, and the remaining 60% are split between agile and hybrid. The mix can vary by exam form.

How to Use This Practice Test

Answer each question, then read the explanation, even when you were right.
Look at your domain scores at the end and study the weakest domain first.
Think like a project manager: assess the situation, collaborate with the team and stakeholders, and follow the change process before acting.
Practice both approaches. Questions can involve predictive, agile and hybrid projects.
Retry missed questions after a day or two.
Take timed practice exams of full length from PMI or a trusted provider before the real exam.

Key Formulas

These formulas appear in this practice test. Learn them and what each result means.

Topic	Formula	Example from this test
Communication channels	n(n-1)/2	8 people: 8 x 7 / 2 = 28
Earned value (EV)	% complete x BAC	40% of $100,000 = $40,000
Cost performance index (CPI)	EV / AC	40,000 / 50,000 = 0.8
Schedule performance index (SPI)	EV / PV	40,000 / 50,000 = 0.8
Estimate at completion (typical variances)	BAC / CPI	100,000 / 0.8 = $125,000
Three-point estimate (PERT)	(O + 4M + P) / 6	(4 + 24 + 14) / 6 = 7 days

Score Yourself

Check pmi.org for how the real exam is scored. The ranges below are only a study guide for this page.

90 to 100: excellent. Move on to full-length timed practice exams.
80 to 89: good. Review the questions you missed and your lowest domain.
70 to 79: keep studying. Reread your study guide for the weak topics.
Below 70: study the material again, then retake this test in a few days.

Answer Key

Use this key to score yourself quickly. The explanations above tell you why.

Q	A	Q	A	Q	A	Q	A	Q	A
1	D	21	A	41	B	61	C	81	D
2	C	22	D	42	A	62	B	82	C
3	B	23	C	43	D	63	A	83	B
4	B	24	C	44	D	64	A	84	B
5	A	25	B	45	C	65	D	85	A
6	D	26	A	46	B	66	C	86	D
7	C	27	D	47	A	67	B	87	C
8	C	28	D	48	A	68	B	88	C
9	B	29	C	49	D	69	A	89	B
10	A	30	B	50	C	70	D	90	A
11	D	31	A	51	B	71	C	91	D
12	D	32	A	52	B	72	C	92	D
13	C	33	D	53	A	73	B	93	C
14	B	34	C	54	D	74	A	94	B
15	A	35	B	55	C	75	D	95	A
16	A	36	B	56	C	76	D	96	A
17	D	37	A	57	B	77	C	97	D
18	C	38	D	58	A	78	B	98	C
19	B	39	C	59	D	79	A	99	B
20	B	40	C	60	D	80	A	100	B

Frequently Asked Questions

Click a question to see the answer.

Are these real PMP exam questions?

No. They are original practice questions written for study, and they are not from the real exam. The real exam has its own questions and formats, so use this page to check your understanding and find weak areas.

How many questions are on the real PMP exam?

PMI’s 2026 exam content outline lists 180 questions, of which 170 are scored and 10 are unscored pretest questions, with 240 minutes to finish. Confirm the current details at pmi.org.

What are the PMP exam domains?

The 2026 outline has three: People (33%), Process (41%) and Business Environment (26%). This practice test uses the same weights.

Do I need to know agile for the PMP exam?

Yes. The outline says about 40% of items cover predictive approaches, and the remaining 60% cover agile and hybrid approaches. Practice with all three.

What should I study besides practice questions?

Study the PMI exam content outline first, then a current study guide or the official PMI materials, and take full-length timed practice exams. Use this test to find your weak topics.

What score do I need on this practice test?

There is no official passing score for this page. Aim for at least 80 percent in every domain, then confirm your readiness with full-length practice exams.

Who can take the PMP exam?

PMI sets eligibility rules based on education and project experience, and they can change. Its 2026 exam page mentions expanded eligibility and a 10-year window for experience. Check pmi.org for the current requirements.

What is the best way to answer scenario questions?

Read the whole scenario, find what is really being asked, and eliminate answers that skip steps, such as acting before assessing impact or going to the sponsor before talking to the team. The best answer is usually the one a collaborative, process-aware project manager would choose.

Conclusion

Practice questions work best when you read each explanation, track your weak domains and retest them. Work through all 100 questions, retry the ones you missed and add full-length timed exams before the real test. When you are ready to apply for roles, build your resume with our project manager resume example.