100 Free CNA Practice Test Questions and Answers

This free CNA practice test has 100 questions and answers covering the topics on the nurse aide exam: infection control, vital signs, personal care, nutrition, mobility, resident rights, communication, mental health, emergencies and common conditions.

Each question has four choices, the correct answer and a short explanation, so you learn why an answer is right and not only which letter to pick.

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Important: these are original practice questions written to help you study. They are not real exam questions. Exam content, procedures and passing scores differ by state, so always check your state’s nurse aide candidate handbook.

About the CNA Exam

Most states test nursing assistants through the National Nurse Aide Assessment Program (NNAAP) or a state-specific exam. According to Credentia, which administers the NNAAP, the written exam has 70 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 2 hours, and 10 of them are pretest questions that are not scored. An oral version is available, with 60 multiple-choice questions and 10 reading comprehension questions. The full certification process also includes a hands-on skills test, which these questions do not replace. Details vary by state and test vendor, so confirm the format with your state registry. For the duties the exam is built around, see our CNA job description and nursing assistant scope of practice pages.

How to Use This Practice Test

Pick an answer for each question. You get instant feedback and an explanation, and the quiz keeps score for you.
Read every explanation, including for questions you got right.
Check your section scores at the end. A low score in one area tells you what to review first.
Use “Retry missed” to redo only the questions you got wrong, ideally after a day or two.
Aim for 80 percent or more in every section before test day. This is a study benchmark, not an official passing score.
Practice the skills out loud and with a partner, since the skills test is hands-on.

Take the Practice Test

Select an answer to see instant feedback and an explanation. Your score and progress update as you go.

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Infection Control and Safety

1. What is the single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?

A.Wearing gloves for every taskB.Wearing a mask at all timesC.Disinfecting the floor each shiftD.Hand hygiene

Answer: D. Hand hygiene is the most important way to prevent infection. Gloves are an added barrier and never replace washing your hands.

2. How long should you scrub your hands with soap and water?

A.About 5 secondsB.About 10 secondsC.At least 20 secondsD.At least 3 minutes

Answer: C. The CDC recommends scrubbing for at least 20 seconds, covering the palms, backs of hands, between fingers and under nails.

3. When must you use soap and water instead of an alcohol-based hand rub?

A.Before entering any roomB.When your hands are visibly soiledC.After taking a pulseD.Never, because alcohol rubs always work better

Answer: B. Alcohol rubs do not work well on visibly dirty hands. Soap and water is also needed after caring for a resident with C. diff.

4. In which order should you put on personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A.Gloves, gown, mask, gogglesB.Gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, glovesC.Mask, gloves, goggles, gownD.Goggles, gloves, gown, mask

Answer: B. Gloves go on last so they cover the cuffs of the gown.

5. Which piece of PPE is usually removed first?

A.GlovesB.MaskC.GownD.Respirator

Answer: A. Gloves are the most contaminated item, so they come off first. Then remove goggles, the gown and the mask, and wash your hands.

6. Standard precautions should be used with:

A.Only residents with a known infectionB.Only residents in isolationC.Only residents with open woundsD.All residents, whether or not they have a known infection

Answer: D. Standard precautions treat all blood and body fluids as possibly infectious.

7. Which condition requires airborne precautions, including an N95 respirator?

A.MRSA in a woundB.Clostridioides difficile (C. diff)C.TuberculosisD.A urinary tract infection

Answer: C. Tuberculosis, measles and chickenpox spread through the air. MRSA and C. diff need contact precautions.

8. What PPE is normally required for contact precautions?

A.Only a surgical maskB.Only gogglesC.Gown and glovesD.No PPE if you are careful

Answer: C. Contact precautions protect against germs spread by touch, such as MRSA and C. diff.

9. How should you handle soiled linen?

A.Shake it out first to see what is in itB.Hold it away from your body and place it in the proper bag or hamper without shaking itC.Carry it against your uniformD.Place it on the floor until you finish the room

Answer: B. Shaking linen spreads germs into the air. Keep it away from your uniform and never put it on the floor.

10. Where should a used razor be discarded?

A.In a puncture-resistant sharps containerB.In the regular trashC.In the laundry hamperD.In the toilet

Answer: A. Sharps go into a rigid, puncture-resistant container to protect staff from cuts.

Vital Signs and Measurements

11. What is the normal resting pulse range for a healthy adult?

A.30 to 50 beats per minuteB.100 to 140 beats per minuteC.120 to 160 beats per minuteD.60 to 100 beats per minute

Answer: D. A resting adult pulse is normally 60 to 100 beats per minute.

12. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?

A.4 to 8 breaths per minuteB.24 to 36 breaths per minuteC.40 to 50 breaths per minuteD.12 to 20 breaths per minute

Answer: D. Count one breath each time the chest rises and falls.

13. What is the best way to count a resident’s respirations?

A.Tell the resident to breathe normally while you countB.Count for 5 seconds and multiply by 12C.Count while keeping your fingers on the pulse so the resident does not noticeD.Ask the resident to count their own breaths

Answer: C. If residents know you are watching their breathing, they may change it. Follow your facility’s counting time, usually 30 seconds or a full minute.

14. Which is the average normal oral temperature for an adult?

A.95.0°F (35°C)B.98.6°F (37°C)C.101.5°F (38.6°C)D.104.0°F (40°C)

Answer: B. Normal temperature varies a little from person to person. Report readings that are far from the resident’s usual.

15. Which blood pressure reading is considered normal for an adult?

A.Below 120/80 mmHgB.150/95 mmHgC.170/100 mmHgD.80/40 mmHg

Answer: A. The American Heart Association lists normal blood pressure as under 120 systolic and under 80 diastolic.

16. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for the resident’s arm will usually give:

A.A falsely high readingB.A falsely low readingC.An accurate readingD.No reading at all

Answer: A. A cuff that is too small does not spread pressure evenly, so the reading comes out too high.

17. Which pulse site do nursing assistants use most often?

A.Femoral pulse in the groinB.Popliteal pulse behind the kneeC.Temporal pulse at the earD.Radial pulse at the wrist

Answer: D. The radial pulse is easy to find and does not require the resident to undress.

18. Why should you not use your thumb to take a pulse?

A.The thumb is too largeB.The thumb is too coldC.The thumb has its own pulse, which can be confused with the resident’sD.The thumb cannot feel pressure

Answer: C. Use the pads of your first two or three fingers.

19. For the most accurate weight comparison from day to day, you should:

A.Use whichever scale is closestB.Weigh the resident at the same time of day, on the same scale, in similar clothingC.Weigh after the resident has a large mealD.Estimate the weight by eye

Answer: B. Consistent conditions make weight changes meaningful. Morning, after using the toilet and before breakfast, is typical.

20. A resident drinks 8 ounces of water. How many milliliters (mL) do you record on the intake and output record?

A.80 mLB.240 mLC.120 mLD.480 mL

Answer: B. One ounce equals about 30 mL, so 8 oz is 240 mL.

Personal Care and Hygiene

21. When giving a bed bath, you should wash from:

A.The cleanest area to the dirtiest areaB.The dirtiest area to the cleanestC.The feet to the faceD.Any area, in any order

Answer: A. This prevents spreading germs from soiled areas to clean ones. The eyes are usually washed first.

22. How do you wash a resident’s eyes during a bed bath?

A.From the outer corner to the inner cornerB.With soap on a rough washclothC.With the same part of the cloth for both eyesD.From the inner corner to the outer corner, using a clean part of the cloth for each eye

Answer: D. Inner to outer moves away from the tear duct and avoids spreading germs between eyes.

23. Before bathing a resident, what should you do about the water?

A.Use the hottest water to keep the resident warmB.Use cold water to make the resident alertC.Check the temperature and ask the resident if it feels comfortableD.Assume the faucet setting is correct

Answer: C. Older adults may have thin, sensitive skin or reduced sensation, so scalds are a risk.

24. When giving perineal care to a female resident, you should wash:

A.From back to frontB.Side to sideC.From front to backD.In a circular motion starting at the rectum

Answer: C. Front to back keeps germs from the rectal area away from the urethra and helps prevent urinary tract infections.

25. How should you position an unconscious resident for oral care?

A.Flat on the backB.On the side, with the head turned toward youC.Sitting straight upD.On the stomach with the head down

Answer: B. Side-lying lets fluid drain from the mouth and lowers the risk of aspiration.

26. When dentures are not in the resident’s mouth, they should be stored:

A.In a labeled denture cup with cool waterB.Wrapped in a tissue on the trayC.In hot waterD.In the resident’s pocket

Answer: A. Wrapped dentures are easily thrown away. Hot water can warp them.

27. Which resident’s toenails should a nursing assistant NOT trim?

A.A resident with arthritisB.A resident who is recovering from a strokeC.A resident with dementiaD.A resident with diabetes

Answer: D. Diabetes reduces circulation and feeling in the feet, so a small cut can become a serious infection. A nurse or podiatrist should do it.

28. Which areas are the most common places for pressure injuries on a resident lying on their back?

A.Palms and forearmsB.Stomach and chestC.Fingertips and earlobesD.Sacrum (tailbone), heels and shoulder blades

Answer: D. Pressure injuries form over bony areas where skin is squeezed between bone and the mattress.

29. When dressing a resident who has weakness on the right side, you should:

A.Put the garment on the strong side firstB.Remove the garment from the weak side firstC.Put the garment on the weak side first and remove it from the strong side firstD.Let the resident dress without help to teach independence

Answer: C. Dress the weak arm or leg first and undress the strong one first, because it is easier to move the weak limb when the strong one is free.

30. When caring for a resident with an indwelling urinary catheter, you should keep the drainage bag:

A.Above the level of the bladderB.Below the level of the bladder and off the floorC.On the bed next to the residentD.On the floor so it stays clean

Answer: B. Keeping the bag below the bladder stops urine flowing back into it, which could cause infection.

Nutrition and Hydration

31. What is the best position for a resident who is eating a meal?

A.Sitting upright, as close to 90 degrees as possibleB.Lying flat on the backC.Lying on one sideD.Leaning backward at 20 degrees

Answer: A. An upright position makes swallowing easier and lowers the risk of choking and aspiration.

32. How can you help a resident who is blind find the food on the tray?

A.Describe where each item is, using the positions of a clockB.Feed the resident without telling them what it isC.Move the tray out of reachD.Tell the resident to guess

Answer: A. For example, “Your meat is at 6 o’clock and your potatoes are at 12 o’clock.”

33. Which is a sign of dehydration?

A.Pale, clear urineB.Swelling in both ankles onlyC.A sudden weight gainD.Dark yellow urine and a dry mouth

Answer: D. Other signs include little urine, sunken eyes, dry skin and new confusion. Report them to the nurse.

34. What does the order “NPO” mean?

A.Normal portions onlyB.No pain medicationC.Nothing by mouthD.No pain overnight

Answer: C. NPO means no food, drink or ice chips unless the nurse tells you otherwise.

35. Which food is highest in sodium?

A.A fresh appleB.Canned soupC.Plain riceD.Steamed broccoli

Answer: B. Canned and processed foods are usually high in sodium. Residents on low-sodium diets should limit them.

36. A resident with diabetes eats almost none of lunch. What should you do?

A.Ignore it, because skipping a meal lowers blood sugar safelyB.Tell the nurseC.Give the resident candy from your pocketD.Wait until dinner to report it

Answer: B. Skipped meals can cause low blood sugar, and the nurse needs to know in time to act.

37. A resident coughs and chokes repeatedly while drinking. What should you do?

A.Stop feeding and report it to the nurseB.Give larger sipsC.Tell the resident to eat fasterD.Continue feeding and note it later

Answer: A. Coughing while swallowing may mean dysphagia, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia.

38. Which of these are signs of low blood sugar (hypoglycemia)?

A.Warm, dry skin and a slow pulseB.Sudden weight gain and swellingC.A runny nose and sneezingD.Shakiness, sweating, hunger and confusion

Answer: D. Report these signs to the nurse right away. Do not wait until the end of your shift.

39. When feeding a resident who has weakness on one side of the face after a stroke, place the food:

A.On the weak side of the mouthB.At the back of the throatC.On the strong side of the mouthD.On the tongue tip

Answer: C. The strong side can chew and swallow more safely.

40. Which of these is allowed on a clear liquid diet?

A.Ice creamB.MilkC.GelatinD.Orange juice with pulp

Answer: C. Clear liquids are see-through at room temperature, such as broth, clear juices, gelatin and tea.

Mobility, Positioning and Restorative Care

41. Which is correct body mechanics when lifting or moving a resident?

A.Bend at the waist with straight legsB.Bend your knees, keep your back straight and keep the load closeC.Hold the load away from your bodyD.Twist your back while you lift

Answer: B. Using your legs and keeping your back straight protects you from back injury.

42. Where is a gait belt placed?

A.Around the resident’s waist, over clothingB.Around the chest under the armsC.Around the neckD.Around the knees

Answer: A. A gait belt gives you something safe to hold during a transfer or walk. Check it is snug but not tight.

43. Before transferring a resident from the bed to a wheelchair, you should:

A.Leave the wheels unlocked so the chair can moveB.Remove the resident’s shoesC.Raise the bed to its highest positionD.Lock the wheelchair and bed wheels

Answer: D. Locked wheels keep equipment from rolling during the transfer.

44. The wheelchair should be placed for a transfer:

A.On the weaker sideB.At the foot of the bedC.Across the roomD.Next to the bed on the resident’s stronger side

Answer: D. The resident uses the strong side to bear weight and pivot.

45. When doing range-of-motion exercises, you should:

A.Push the joint as far as possibleB.Move quickly to save timeC.Move each joint slowly and gently and stop if the resident feels painD.Continue even if the resident complains

Answer: C. Move to the point of resistance but not past it, and report pain.

46. What does “passive range of motion” mean?

A.The resident moves their own jointsB.The caregiver moves the resident’s joints for themC.The resident does not move at allD.The resident uses weights

Answer: B. In active range of motion the resident moves the joint themselves.

47. In which position is the resident lying flat on the back?

A.SupineB.ProneC.LateralD.Sims

Answer: A. Prone is lying on the stomach. Lateral means on the side.

48. Which position has the head of the bed raised about 45 to 60 degrees?

A.Fowler’s positionB.Trendelenburg positionC.Prone positionD.Supine position

Answer: A. Fowler’s position helps with eating and breathing. Semi-Fowler’s is a lower angle.

49. Which hand should hold a cane?

A.The hand on the weaker sideB.Either hand, alternating each stepC.Both hands at onceD.The hand on the stronger side of the body

Answer: D. The cane is held on the stronger side and moves with the weaker leg.

50. What is a contracture, and how can you help prevent it?

A.A swollen vein, prevented by bed restB.A skin infection, prevented by bathingC.A shortening and stiffening of a muscle or joint, prevented by range-of-motion exercises and good positioningD.A bone break, prevented by calcium

Answer: C. Contractures develop when joints are not moved. Regular exercise and repositioning keep them flexible.

Resident Rights, Ethics and Legal Issues

51. Which federal law set minimum training requirements for nurse aides and protects nursing home resident rights?

A.The Americans with Disabilities ActB.The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1987C.The Affordable Care ActD.The Fair Labor Standards Act

Answer: B. OBRA 1987 set federal nursing home standards, including aide training and resident rights.

52. With whom may you share information about a resident?

A.Anyone who asksB.Only the staff who are involved in the resident’s care and need to knowC.Other residents’ familiesD.Friends outside work

Answer: B. HIPAA protects the privacy of health information. Do not discuss residents in hallways, elevators or on social media.

53. A resident refuses a bath. What should you do?

A.Respect the choice, try again later if appropriate and tell the nurseB.Give the bath anywayC.Threaten to tell the familyD.Ignore it and say nothing

Answer: A. Residents have the right to refuse care. Report the refusal to the nurse.

54. You suspect a coworker is abusing a resident. What should you do?

A.Wait to see whether it happens againB.Confront the coworker in front of the residentC.Tell only your friends at workD.Report it to your supervisor or the nurse immediately

Answer: D. Reporting suspected abuse is required. Protect the resident first.

55. Who must order a physical restraint?

A.Any nursing assistantB.The resident’s roommateC.A licensed provider, following facility policy and lawD.The family member who is visiting

Answer: C. Restraints are used only as a last resort, and nursing assistants cannot apply them on their own.

56. What should you do before entering a resident’s room?

A.Walk in because it is a facility roomB.Open the door without announcing yourselfC.Knock and wait for permission when possible, and introduce yourselfD.Skip knocking if the door is open

Answer: C. Privacy and dignity are resident rights.

57. Failing to give a bedbound resident the repositioning they need is an example of:

A.Good time managementB.NeglectC.Resident independenceD.Standard precautions

Answer: B. Neglect means failing to provide care a resident needs.

58. Which task is outside the usual scope of practice for a nursing assistant in most states?

A.Giving medicationsB.Taking vital signsC.Assisting with bathingD.Measuring intake and output

Answer: A. Scope of practice varies by state, so always follow your state’s rules and your employer’s policy.

59. If you make a mistake when documenting on paper, you should:

A.Use correction fluidB.Scratch it out until it cannot be readC.Tear out the pageD.Draw one line through it, write “error,” and add your initials, date and time, and then write the correct information

Answer: D. Records must stay honest and readable. Electronic systems have their own correction process.

60. A resident offers you a gift of money to thank you. What should you do?

A.Accept it and say nothingB.Ask for moreC.Keep it secretD.Politely decline and follow facility policy

Answer: D. Most facilities do not allow staff to accept money or valuable gifts because of conflicts of interest and exploitation risks.

Communication and the Healthcare Team

61. Who should you report a change in a resident’s condition to?

A.The resident’s roommateB.Another nursing assistant onlyC.The nurse in chargeD.The dietary department

Answer: C. Report changes promptly. The nurse decides what to do next.

62. Which is an example of an open-ended question?

A.“Are you in pain?”B.“How are you feeling today?”C.“Did you sleep well?”D.“Do you want juice?”

Answer: B. Open-ended questions invite more than a yes or no answer.

63. What is the best way to communicate with a resident who has a hearing impairment?

A.Face the resident, speak clearly and reduce background noiseB.Shout from across the roomC.Turn away while speakingD.Speak very fast

Answer: A. Check that hearing aids are in and working. Shouting distorts speech and can feel disrespectful.

64. A resident has aphasia and cannot find the words to speak. What should you do?

A.Be patient, ask simple questions and allow time to answerB.Finish the resident’s sentencesC.Speak louderD.Avoid talking to the resident

Answer: A. Gestures, pictures and yes-or-no questions can help.

65. A resident does not speak your language. What is the best approach?

A.Ask a child visitor to translate medical detailsB.Speak more loudlyC.Ignore the resident’s requestsD.Use an interpreter or the facility’s language service, plus simple words and pictures

Answer: D. Qualified interpreters protect accuracy and privacy.

66. Which statement is an objective observation?

A.“The resident seems depressed.”B.“The resident is faking pain.”C.“The resident’s temperature is 101.2°F.”D.“The resident is acting lazy.”

Answer: C. Objective information is something you can see, measure or hear. Subjective reports come from the resident.

67. How should you respond to a resident’s call light?

A.Wait until you finish your breakB.Answer it promptly and keep it within the resident’s reachC.Turn it off without going inD.Place it out of reach so it is not pressed too often

Answer: B. The call light is the resident’s lifeline.

68. You have a disagreement with a coworker. What should you do?

A.Argue in front of residentsB.Discuss it privately and professionally, or ask your supervisor for helpC.Gossip with other staffD.Ignore your assignments

Answer: B. Conflict in front of residents upsets them and can affect care.

69. How should you address residents?

A.By the name they prefer, such as Mr. Lee or Mrs. GarciaB.As “honey” or “sweetie”C.By their room numberD.By their diagnosis

Answer: A. Using preferred names shows respect and preserves dignity.

70. Why is accurate documentation important?

A.It makes the shift end fasterB.It is only for the resident’s familyC.It is not important if you tell the next shiftD.It is the legal record of the care given and helps the team make decisions

Answer: D. If it was not documented, it may be treated as not done.

Mental Health, Dementia and Cultural Care

71. What is the best way to approach a resident with dementia?

A.Approach quickly from behindB.Give several instructions at onceC.Approach calmly from the front, say your name and give one simple direction at a timeD.Argue about what is real

Answer: C. A calm, simple approach reduces confusion and fear.

72. What is “sundowning”?

A.A skin reaction to sun exposureB.A type of heart rhythmC.Increased confusion and restlessness in the late afternoon or eveningD.A mealtime ritual

Answer: C. Keep the environment calm and report new or worsening behavior.

73. A resident with dementia is wandering. What should you do?

A.Lock the resident in the roomB.Gently guide the resident back to a safe area and tell the nurseC.Ignore the behaviorD.Yell for the resident to stop

Answer: B. Wandering is a safety risk. Report it so the care plan can be updated.

74. A resident with dementia says she needs to go home to her mother, who died years ago. What is the best response?

A.Respond to her feelings, gently redirect and avoid arguingB.Say bluntly that her mother is deadC.Argue until she accepts itD.Leave her alone

Answer: A. Validate the emotion and shift attention to a comforting activity.

75. Which of these may be signs of depression in a resident?

A.Bursts of laughter at jokesB.Eating all meals and joining activitiesC.Improved mood after visitsD.Withdrawal, loss of appetite, trouble sleeping and expressing hopelessness

Answer: D. Report these changes to the nurse. Take any talk of self-harm seriously and report it immediately.

76. According to the stages of grief, what is typically the first stage?

A.AcceptanceB.BargainingC.DepressionD.Denial

Answer: D. The commonly taught stages are denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance, but people do not always go in order.

77. A resident declines pork for religious reasons. What should you do?

A.Insist that the resident eat itB.Remove the tray without telling anyoneC.Respect the preference, offer an alternative and tell the nurse or dietary staffD.Tell the resident the belief is wrong

Answer: C. Respecting culture and religion is part of resident-centered care.

78. A resident becomes angry and shouts at you. What should you do?

A.Shout backB.Stay calm, speak softly, give space and report the incidentC.Argue to prove them wrongD.Walk away without telling anyone

Answer: B. Keep yourself and others safe, and do not take it personally.

79. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which needs come first?

A.Physiological needs such as air, food, water and restB.Self-esteem needsC.Self-actualizationD.Social needs such as friendship

Answer: A. Basic physical needs must be met before higher needs.

80. Why should you encourage residents to do as much as they can for themselves?

A.It maintains strength and builds self-esteemB.It saves the aide timeC.It makes residents depend on staffD.It is a facility punishment

Answer: A. Allowing independence supports dignity and helps preserve function.

Emergencies and Safety

81. A conscious adult is choking and cannot speak or cough. What should you do?

A.Give waterB.Pat the back gently and waitC.Lay the person flat and leaveD.Give abdominal thrusts (the Heimlich maneuver) and call for help

Answer: D. Follow your facility’s emergency protocol and have someone call for help.

82. How deep should chest compressions be for an adult in CPR?

A.About half an inchB.About 1 inchC.At least 2 inches (5 cm)D.About 4 inches

Answer: C. The American Heart Association recommends at least 2 inches, at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute, with full chest recoil.

83. For one rescuer giving CPR to an adult, what is the ratio of compressions to breaths?

A.15 to 2B.30 compressions to 2 breathsC.5 to 1D.50 to 5

Answer: B. Check your state’s and employer’s CPR certification for current details.

84. In the fire safety acronym RACE, what does “R” stand for?

A.RunB.Rescue (remove people in immediate danger)C.ReportD.Rest

Answer: B. RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain and Extinguish or Evacuate.

85. In the fire extinguisher acronym PASS, what does the “A” stand for?

A.AimB.ActivateC.AlertD.Assist

Answer: A. PASS stands for Pull, Aim, Squeeze and Sweep.

86. You find a resident on the floor after a fall. What should you do first?

A.Lift the resident back to bedB.Leave to look for a coworkerC.Give the resident something to drinkD.Stay with the resident, do not move them and call the nurse

Answer: D. Moving the resident could worsen an injury. The nurse needs to assess first.

87. Which is an important rule about oxygen safety?

A.Use petroleum jelly on the noseB.Turn off the tank to save oxygenC.Do not allow smoking or open flames in the roomD.Place the tank near a heater

Answer: C. Oxygen supports burning, so keep it away from sparks, flames and heat.

88. Which signs may suggest a stroke?

A.Sneezing and a runny noseB.Itchy eyesC.Face drooping, arm weakness and trouble speakingD.Mild hunger

Answer: C. FAST stands for Face, Arms, Speech and Time to call emergency services.

89. A resident is having a seizure. What should you do?

A.Put a spoon in the mouthB.Protect the resident from injury, do not hold them down and note how long it lastsC.Hold the resident down firmlyD.Give water immediately

Answer: B. Turn the resident to the side if possible after the seizure and call the nurse.

90. A resident has a bleeding wound. What should you do first?

A.Wear gloves and apply direct pressure with a clean cloth, then call the nurseB.Remove the cloth every minute to lookC.Apply a tight band around the neckD.Wash the wound with hot water only

Answer: A. Follow standard precautions and call for help.

Common Conditions, Special Care and End of Life

91. Which signs may point to a urinary tract infection in an older adult?

A.Dry cough and sore throatB.Swollen knee onlyC.Itchy scalpD.Burning when urinating, frequent urination, cloudy or foul-smelling urine and new confusion

Answer: D. In older adults a UTI can show up as sudden confusion. Report it.

92. A resident with heart failure has rapid weight gain and swelling in the legs. What should you do?

A.Encourage the resident to drink more fluidsB.Ignore it because it is normalC.Tell the resident to stop walking foreverD.Report it to the nurse

Answer: D. Fluid buildup is a warning sign that needs prompt follow-up.

93. Which position often makes breathing easier for a resident with COPD?

A.Lying flatB.Lying face downC.Sitting upright or in a high Fowler’s positionD.Head lower than the feet

Answer: C. Upright positioning lets the lungs expand more fully.

94. What is the main goal of hospice care?

A.A cure for every illnessB.Comfort and dignity for people near the end of lifeC.Rehabilitation to return homeD.Surgery to repair damage

Answer: B. Hospice focuses on pain control, emotional support and quality of life.

95. Which are common signs that death may be near?

A.Reduced eating and drinking, more sleep, changes in breathing and cool, mottled skinB.Sudden increase in appetiteC.Fast walkingD.Cheerful chatting at all hours

Answer: A. Offer comfort, mouth care and presence. Report changes to the nurse.

96. You think a resident has died. What should you do first?

A.Notify the nurse right awayB.Move the bodyC.Call the family yourselfD.Remove the bed linens

Answer: A. Only the nurse or a provider can pronounce death. Follow facility policy for care of the body.

97. Which urine observation should you report to the nurse?

A.Light yellow urineB.Urine that is clearC.Normal amount of urineD.Red-tinged or bloody urine

Answer: D. Blood in the urine can signal infection or injury.

98. What does stage 1 pressure injury look like?

A.A deep open craterB.A black scabC.Intact skin with redness that does not fade when pressedD.Skin that is cool and normal

Answer: C. Report persistent redness early. Early action can prevent a worse wound.

99. Why should you smooth wrinkles from a resident’s bottom sheet?

A.Wrinkles make the bed look messy onlyB.Wrinkles can press on the skin and cause pressure injuriesC.Wrinkles make beds warmerD.There is no reason

Answer: B. Dry, smooth linen protects fragile skin.

100. Which of these is an alternative to using a restraint?

A.Tying the resident to a chairB.Offering toileting, activities and a lower bed with an alarmC.Giving more medication without an orderD.Locking the door

Answer: B. Meeting the resident’s needs and adjusting the environment often removes the reason for restraint.

Your Score

Section	Score

Score Yourself

90 to 100: excellent. Review any missed topics and practice your skills.
80 to 89: good. Focus on your weakest sections.
70 to 79: keep studying, especially infection control, resident rights and safety.
Below 70: review each explanation, then retake the test in a few days.

Answer Key

Use this key to score yourself quickly. The explanations above tell you why.

Q	A	Q	A	Q	A	Q	A	Q	A
1	D	21	A	41	B	61	C	81	D
2	C	22	D	42	A	62	B	82	C
3	B	23	C	43	D	63	A	83	B
4	B	24	C	44	D	64	A	84	B
5	A	25	B	45	C	65	D	85	A
6	D	26	A	46	B	66	C	86	D
7	C	27	D	47	A	67	B	87	C
8	C	28	D	48	A	68	B	88	C
9	B	29	C	49	D	69	A	89	B
10	A	30	B	50	C	70	D	90	A
11	D	31	A	51	B	71	C	91	D
12	D	32	A	52	B	72	C	92	D
13	C	33	D	53	A	73	B	93	C
14	B	34	C	54	D	74	A	94	B
15	A	35	B	55	C	75	D	95	A
16	A	36	B	56	C	76	D	96	A
17	D	37	A	57	B	77	C	97	D
18	C	38	D	58	A	78	B	98	C
19	B	39	C	59	D	79	A	99	B
20	B	40	C	60	D	80	A	100	B

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the CNA written exam?

The NNAAP written exam has 70 multiple-choice questions, of which 10 are unscored pretest items, and a 2-hour time limit, according to Credentia. Your state may use a different test, so check your candidate handbook.

What is the passing score for the CNA exam?

It depends on the state and test vendor. Check your state nurse aide registry or candidate handbook rather than relying on a general number.

Are these the real CNA exam questions?

No. They are original practice questions that cover the same kinds of topics. They are for study only.

What topics should I study most?

Infection control, resident rights, safety and emergencies, personal care, communication and basic vital signs appear often on study outlines. Use your state handbook to see the exact list.

Does the CNA exam include a skills test?

Yes. Most states require a hands-on skills test, where you perform tasks such as handwashing, measuring vital signs, transfers and personal care in front of an evaluator. Practice each step in order.

How long should I study?

It depends on your background and training. Many candidates study a little each day for a few weeks, mixing practice questions with skills practice.

What should I do after I pass?

Make sure you are listed on your state nurse aide registry, then update your resume. See our CNA resume sample and skills for a CNA resume.

Conclusion

Practice questions work best when you review the reasons behind each answer and pair them with hands-on skills practice. Work through all 100 questions, repeat the ones you missed, and use your state's candidate handbook as your final guide. Once you are certified, our CNA interview questions and answers can help you land the job.

100 Free CNA Practice Test Questions and Answers – Certified Nursing Assistant